The GATE Grind

GATE 2022 CY – Previous Year Questions with Solutions

All 65 questions of GATE 2022 CY with answers and explanations. Read each question, then practise it by topic or as a full paper.

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  1. Question 1 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Inhaling the smoke from a burning could you quickly.
  2. Question 2 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A sphere of radius r cm is packed in a cubical box. What is the minimum volume (cm3) of the box that can enclose the sphere?
  3. Question 3 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate…
  4. Question 4 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following…
  5. Question 5 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially. What is the minimum…
  6. Question 6 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a…
  7. Question 7 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below. When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes.…
  8. Question 8 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Consider (i) 3p-q<4 and (ii) 3q-p<12. Which expression satisfies the above two inequalities?
  9. Question 9 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements. Statement 1: Some engineers are writers. Statement 2: No writer…
  10. Question 10 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.
  11. Question 11 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The major product M formed in the following reaction is
  12. Question 12 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The starting material Y in the following reaction is
  13. Question 13 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The major product in the given reaction is Q. The mass spectrum of Q shows [M] = molecular ion peak
  14. Question 14 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A tripeptide on treatment with PhNCS (pH = 8.0) followed by heating with dilute HCl afforded a cyclic compound M and a dipeptide. The dipeptide on…
  15. Question 15 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The major product M in the following reaction is
  16. Question 16 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The major product T formed in the following reaction is
  17. Question 17 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – In differential thermal analysis (DTA)
  18. Question 18 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The O–O resonance Raman stretching frequencies (cm-1) of coordinated dioxygen in oxyhemoglobin and oxyhemocyanin appear, respectively, nearly at .
  19. Question 19 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The numbers of metal–metal bonds with , , and character in [Mo 2(CH 3CO 2) 4], respectively, are .
  20. Question 20 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – 1s A and 1s B are normalized eigenfunctions of hydrogen atoms H A,H B. If S=1s A1s B, which option is ALWAYS correct?
  21. Question 21 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A hypothetical diatomic molecule shows three pure-vibrational peaks. Intensities (arbitrary units) at 300, 600, 900 K are: I: 1.0, 1.0, 1.0 II: 0.1,…
  22. Question 22 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – The point group of SF 6 is .
  23. Question 23 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A point at (1,3,5) is transformed by O 1 to (-1,-3,5), then by O 2 to (-1,-3,-5). The symmetry operators O 1, O 2, respectively, are .
  24. Question 24 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A gas at pressure P adsorbs nondissociatively on a solid according to Langmuir. For fixed fractional coverage at fixed temperature, which relation…
  25. Question 25 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A second-order reaction follows the Arrhenius equation. The SI unit of its pre-exponential factor is .
  26. Question 26 (1 mark, Multiple select) – The CORRECT reagent(s) for the given reaction is(are)
  27. Question 27 (1 mark, Multiple select) – Which statements about the 1H NMR spectra of P and Q are correct?
  28. Question 28 (1 mark, Multiple select) – The CORRECT statement(s) about thallium halides is(are)
  29. Question 29 (1 mark, Multiple select) – The CORRECT statement(s) about the spectral line broadening in atomic spectra is(are)
  30. Question 30 (1 mark, Multiple select) – Match the active-site metal (Column A) with metalloenzyme (Column B). A: P Cu; Q Mo; R Co; S Zn. B: I B12 coenzyme; II carboxypeptidase; III nitrate…
  31. Question 31 (1 mark, Multiple select) – The CORRECT statement(s) about the following phase diagram for a hypothetical pure substance X is(are)
  32. Question 32 (1 mark, Multiple select) – The parameter(s) fixed for each system in a canonical ensemble is(are)
  33. Question 33 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – The number of peaks in the broadband proton-decoupled 13C NMR spectrum of T, recorded at 25 °C in CDCl 3, is .
  34. Question 34 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – The diffraction angle (degrees, one decimal place) for the (321) planes of a BCC metal with atomic radius 0.125 nm is . Reflection order is 1; X-ray…
  35. Question 35 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – For angular momentum operator L and spherical harmonics Y lm(,), ( L x2+ L y2)Y 21=n2Y 21. The value of n is .
  36. Question 36 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major product P obtained in the following reaction sequence is
  37. Question 37 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major product Q in the given reaction is
  38. Question 38 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major product P in the following reaction is
  39. Question 39 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major product P in the reaction sequence is
  40. Question 40 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major products P and Q in the following reaction sequence are
  41. Question 41 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The major products M and N in the given reaction sequence are
  42. Question 42 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Three different crystallographic planes of a unit cell of a metal are given below (solid circles represent atom). The crystal system of the unit cell…
  43. Question 43 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The number of equivalents of H2S gas released from the active site of rubredoxin, 2-iron ferredoxin, and 4-iron ferredoxin when treated with mineral…
  44. Question 44 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The number of S=O stretching bands in the IR spectrum of high-spin [Mn(dmso) 6]3+ (dmso: dimethylsulfoxide) is .
  45. Question 45 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The rate constants of the following self-exchange electron-transfer reactions at a fixed temperature follow . An asterisk denotes a radioactive…
  46. Question 46 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The CORRECT distribution of the products in the following reaction is
  47. Question 47 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The addition of K4[Fe(CN)6] to a neutral aqueous solution of the cationic species of a metal produces a brown precipitate that is insoluble in dilute…
  48. Question 48 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – An octahedral Ni(II) complex has four d–d bands. Match each band with its transition. Bands: P 1000 nm (ε=50); Q 770 nm (8); R 630 nm (55); S 375 nm…
  49. Question 49 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Match rotor types P oblate symmetric, Q prolate symmetric, R spherical, S asymmetric with molecules 1 SiH 4, 2 CH 3Cl, 3 C 6H 6, 4 CH 3OH, 5 CO 2.
  50. Question 50 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Which statement about the three illustrated normal modes of SO 3 is correct? + and − indicate out-of-plane motion.
  51. Question 51 (2 marks, Multiple select) – The reaction(s) that yield(s) 3-phenylcyclopentanone as the major product is(are)
  52. Question 52 (2 marks, Multiple select) – The reaction(s) that yield(s) M as the major product is(are)
  53. Question 53 (2 marks, Multiple select) – Which statements about B 10H 14 are correct?
  54. Question 54 (2 marks, Multiple select) – The CORRECT statement(s) about the Group-I metals is(are)
  55. Question 55 (2 marks, Multiple select) – The compound(s) that satisfies/satisfy the 18-electron rule is(are) (Atomic number of Os = 76, Rh = 45, Mo = 42, and Fe = 26)
  56. Question 56 (2 marks, Multiple select) – For operators A, B, C, [ A,[ B, C]]+[ B,[ C, A]]= .
  57. Question 57 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The difference between the numbers of gauche-butane interactions in P and Q is .
  58. Question 58 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The calculated magnetic moment of a Ce3+ complex is BM (two decimal places).
  59. Question 59 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The electron in He+ has normalized wavefunction (r,,)=3/8R 21Y 10-i7/16R 10Y 00+xR 32Y 20. Here R nl,Y lm are radial and angular eigenfunction…
  60. Question 60 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A hydrogen-like atom has wavefunction (r,,)=21/2811/2(Z/a 0)5/2(6-Zr/a 0)r e-Zr/(3a 0). Its number of nodes is .
  61. Question 61 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – At 25 °C and 1 bar, cell Cu CuSO 4(aq,1.0\ mol/kg) Hg 2SO 4(s) Hg(l) Pt has EMF 0.36 V. The mean activity coefficient of CuSO 4 is (three decimal…
  62. Question 62 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The radius of gyration of a three-dimensional random-coil linear polyethylene molecule of molecular weight 840000 is nm (one decimal place). C–C bond…
  63. Question 63 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The elementary gas-phase reaction O 3+NO NO 2+O 2 has activation energy 10.5 kJ/mol. Its standard enthalpy of activation at 25 °C is kJ/mol (two…
  64. Question 64 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Each molecule has two nondegenerate levels separated by 5000 cm-1. Ground-state population is ten times upper-state population. The measurement…
  65. Question 65 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The surroundings entropy change when 1 mol supercooled water at 263 K freezes at 263 K and 1 bar is J/K (two decimal places). At 273 K, fusH=6.0…