The GATE Grind

GATE 2023 ES – Previous Year Questions with Solutions

All 65 questions of GATE 2023 ES with answers and explanations. Read each question, then practise it by topic or as a full paper.

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  1. Question 1 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.” The following reports the above statement in indirect speech: Rafi told Mary that he…
  2. Question 2 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Permit : : : Enforce : Relax (By word meaning)
  3. Question 3 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’, what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll…
  4. Question 4 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted…
  5. Question 5 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – How many triangles are present in the given figure?
  6. Question 6 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college…
  7. Question 7 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Which one of the following options represents the given graph?
  8. Question 8 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it? We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors…
  9. Question 9 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – The digit in the unit’s place of the product 71000 3999 is .
  10. Question 10 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the…
  11. Question 11 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Classify P:y+x=x y and Q:y+xy=ex\,y.
  12. Question 12 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – For square matrices P, Q, consider X:(P-1)-1=P and Y:Q is symmetric if Q=-QT. Choose the truth values.
  13. Question 13 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Classify the infinite series P= n=1(n2+1)/n2 and Q= n=1(1+1/n)-n.
  14. Question 14 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – A water sample is colorless with phenolphthalein but yellow after methyl-orange addition. Which alkalinity interpretation is intended?
  15. Question 15 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Consider I Eukaryotic photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, and energy-yielding breakdown in cytoplasm/mitochondria. II The same organelles occur in…
  16. Question 16 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Consider i Aerobic heterotrophs use organic matter for carbon and energy;ii They use CO₂ for both;iii Aerobic autotrophs use CO₂ carbon and reduced…
  17. Question 17 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – For electron acceptors:i DO serves aerobic bacteria;ii Nitrite serves obligately aerobic bacteria;iii DO serves obligately anaerobic bacteria;iv…
  18. Question 18 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Under CPCB’s2009 notification, which24-hour standards are correct? All concentrations are µg/m³.
  19. Question 19 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Under India’s2015 National AQI, NO₂,SO₂,PM₁₀ subindices are80,80,100. Find overall AQI.
  20. Question 20 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Which is NOT a biomedical-waste segregation category under India’s2016 rules?
  21. Question 21 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Which are NOT covered by India’s Hazardous and Other Wastes2016 rules:i Domestic hazardous waste;ii Nuclear waste;iii Wet-scrubber sludge from…
  22. Question 22 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Match P HDPE, Q LDPE, R PET, S Polystyrene with i Garbage bags/bubble packaging, ii Pharmaceutical bottles/Styrofoam cups, iii Water bottles, iv…
  23. Question 23 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Order oldest to newest:i Stockholm UN environment conference establishing UNEP;ii Vienna ozone convention;iii Glasgow COP26;iv Montreal ozone…
  24. Question 24 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Which100-year GWP ordering is ascending?
  25. Question 25 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – For Kyoto:i Every signatory has common and equal responsibility;ii CDM, JI, and international emissions trading are its three mechanisms;iii India…
  26. Question 26 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Consider I Polluter pays assigns responsibility for environmental damage to the polluter;II Precaution emphasizes caution/review before potentially…
  27. Question 27 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – I LCA assesses product environmental impacts across a system to identify improvements. II EIA identifies, predicts and evaluates likely…
  28. Question 28 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Order Indian acts from oldest:i Environment Protection;ii Water Pollution Prevention/Control;iii Air Pollution Prevention/Control;iv National Green…
  29. Question 29 (1 mark, Multiple choice) – Glycerin and kerosene have kinematic viscosities1.2 and .95 times water. They flow through identical porous media at equal hydraulic gradients,…
  30. Question 30 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – Disease prevalence is .002. A test is positive with probability.98 given disease and .03 given no disease. Find probability of disease given a…
  31. Question 31 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – A 2 m wide rectangular channel carries10 m³/s. Find critical depth in m, to two decimals, using g=9.81 m/s².
  32. Question 32 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – Glucose respiration has respiratory quotient1. Find the quotient for complete oxidation of fatty acid C 51H 98O 6,to two decimals.
  33. Question 33 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – Evaluate (4/) 0/22x\,dx,to two decimals.
  34. Question 34 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – An S-hydrograph uses3-hour unit hydrographs for 1 cm excess over 240 km². Find its equilibrium discharge in m³/s, to two decimals.
  35. Question 35 (1 mark, Numerical answer) – Clay particles of diameter 75 µm and specific gravity2.65 settle twice as fast as metal particles of specific gravity8. Under discrete laminar…
  36. Question 36 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Nine independent normal holding times have mean8.33 and standard deviation4.472. Sample mean M is normal. For the printed hypotheses…
  37. Question 37 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Which statement is NOT correct?
  38. Question 38 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Consider I Bacteriophage is an anaerobic bacterium;II Male-specific phages infect via pili of other microorganisms including viruses;III Phages occur…
  39. Question 39 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Consider i Endogenous aerobic metabolism uses an electron acceptor inside cells;ii Its acceptor is DO;iii Endogenous metabolism is linked to…
  40. Question 40 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – A boiler emits fine particulate matter at a location with high plume rise. Which control is best if the collected particles will be reused?
  41. Question 41 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Match J Dalton, K Fick, L Henry, M Stokes with i Diffusion, ii Gas-mixture pressure, iii Gravitational settling, iv Gas–liquid phase transfer.
  42. Question 42 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Consider I Liebig’s minimum law concerns limiting scarce resources;II Shelford tolerance says only excess factors affect growth;III Shelford describes…
  43. Question 43 (2 marks, Multiple choice) – Consider I Cr(III) generally has lower aqueous solubility/soil mobility than Cr(VI);II Zero-valent iron converts Cr(III) to Cr(VI);III Cr(VI) is…
  44. Question 44 (2 marks, Multiple select) – Which urban-heat-island statement is NOT true? Select all that apply.
  45. Question 45 (2 marks, Multiple select) – For aerobic composting:I Anaerobic pockets cause most odor problems;II All organic carbon fully degrades in 14 days;III High C/N releases ammonia and…
  46. Question 46 (2 marks, Multiple select) – Products P, Q have phases extraction, production, use, end-of-life. Each tuple is(CO₂ kg/tonne, CH₄ kg/tonne, tonnes/functional unit).…
  47. Question 47 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Solve y-y-2y=0 with y(0)=2,y′(0)=1 and find y(1),to three decimals.
  48. Question 48 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – P=pmatrix2&3\\1&4pmatrix,Q=pmatrix5&4\\0&2pmatrix and R=(PQ)T. Find det R as an integer.
  49. Question 49 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Find the maximum of f(x)=x4-x2 on[−2,2],to two decimals.
  50. Question 50 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Gas A has aqueous solubility16 mg/L at vapor pressure.042 atm and 25°C. In a closed system its gas concentration is 10⁻³ mol/L. Use ideal R=.0821…
  51. Question 51 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – The catchment Q–S–U–T–Q and gauge positions are shown. Rainfalls P, Q, R, S, U, V are20,25,30,15,22,18 mm. Find Thiessen-weighted mean rainfall in mm,…
  52. Question 52 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A concrete-lined trapezoidal canal has n=.01,Q20 m³/s, slope1:400,side slope2H:1V and bottom width twice depth. Find flow depth in m, to two decimals.
  53. Question 53 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A 314 kN plunger balances oil of specific gravity.9 in a 1.5 m diameter vessel. A 1.5 cm tube connects to a pressure gauge at 1.5 m above the…
  54. Question 54 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A confined aquifer has thickness16 m, K25 m/day and a fully penetrating well pumping.1 m³/s at steady state. Drawdown at 75 m is 3.5 m. Find drawdown…
  55. Question 55 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A reactor consumes all acetate in the reaction .125CH 3COO-+.0295NH 4++ .103O 2 .0295C 5H 7O 2N+.0955H 2O+.095HCO 3-+.007CO 2. Influent acetate is 1…
  56. Question 56 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A 100 mL flask contains .12 mg/L geosmin. Carbon follows Freundlich q=2.6C.73 mg adsorbate/mg adsorbent, where C is equilibrium mg/L. Find carbon dose…
  57. Question 57 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – An oil pipeline must carry20 L/s under laminar conditions. Kinematic viscosity6×10⁻⁶ m²/s and specific gravity.9. Find minimum diameter in m, to two…
  58. Question 58 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A BOD bottle contains 25 mL wastewater diluted to 300 mL. Wastewater ultimate BOD75 mg/L, initial diluted DO6.5 mg/L, and day 7 DO1.25 mg/L;day 5 was…
  59. Question 59 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A 30 m³ room has ventilation500 m³/hour in/out and initially negligible VOC. A stove burns.25 kg wood/hour, emitting.2 gVOC/kg. VOC reacts first-order…
  60. Question 60 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A city generates1000 tonnes waste/day:15% recycled,40% composted,25% sent to RDF production at 80% mass efficiency, and the rest landfilled. RDF…
  61. Question 61 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – An80 m effective stack emits1200 g/hour CO. The windrose is shown. Dispersion coefficients (σy, σz), in m: Northeast (50, 20); North (45, 30);…
  62. Question 62 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Anita travels30 km daily on a petrol scooter giving50 km/L. She replaces it with an electric scooter using.1 kWh per 10 km. Petrol costs₹90/L,…
  63. Question 63 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – Waste ultimate composition by mass is 48%C,6%H,35%O,6%N,5%ash. For1 kg burned, assuming combustion air contains only oxygen/nitrogen, find maximum CO₂…
  64. Question 64 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – A 65 kg adult with 65-year lifetime drinks2 L/day for five years from water containing.15 mg/L toluene. Reference dose.200 mg/(kg·day). Find noncancer…
  65. Question 65 (2 marks, Numerical answer) – An aeration tank treats180000 m³/day water, lowering VOC from 33 to 12 µg/L. Equilibrium saturation concentration5 µg/L and gas-transfer constant.40/s…